Suppose you spend $1M to produce something worth $100k. You lost $900k.
But suppose you borrowed at 0% while inflation was (to use round numbers) 10%. After about 50 years of borrowing at 0%, your $100k is now worth more than $1M. (I'm too lazy to use logs to figure out the exact breakeven point right now.) You made a profit.
With 0% interest rates, your investment that destroyed $900k of value was (eventually) profitable. If you can avoid mark-to-market accounting, you can just borrow, wait for inflation, and eventually sell for a profit.
When interest rates are less than inflation, a capital-destroying investment can seem profitable.
So in this scenario, you either got an indefinite-term loan with a 0 interest payment, or you took a big risk by betting that the cost of borrowing would not increase until you could pay down the loan.
Suppose you spend $1M to produce something worth $100k. You lost $900k.
But suppose you borrowed at 0% while inflation was (to use round numbers) 10%. After about 50 years of borrowing at 0%, your $100k is now worth more than $1M. (I'm too lazy to use logs to figure out the exact breakeven point right now.) You made a profit.
With 0% interest rates, your investment that destroyed $900k of value was (eventually) profitable. If you can avoid mark-to-market accounting, you can just borrow, wait for inflation, and eventually sell for a profit.
When interest rates are less than inflation, a capital-destroying investment can seem profitable.