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Could they possibly create 1-2 and 3-4 entangled pairs at the same time, measure 1 & 4 and then use this "projective measurement" trick to entangle 3 and 4? If so, could this affect the measurements of 1 and 4 in the past?



yes, i think, if you mean 2 and 3. you have 1-2 and 3-4, then you entangle 1-4 which I think should lead to 2-3 entanglement without the 2-3 couple ever interacting at all.

I think it is called entanglement teleportation.


Yeah, I've meant entangling 2 & 3 pair and measuring 1 & 4. But my concern is if we can still use this trick after measuring 1 & 4?


>For example, last year a team showed that entanglement swapping still works even if they make the projective measurement after they’ve already measured the polarizations of photons 1 and 4.

So yes, they can. Which leaves me wondering which option is right: A. I'm missing something major here. B. They can measure 1 and 4 and then decide whether to use their box on 2 and 3 and contradict causality. C. This experiment isn't actually exciting at all and the 'entanglement' isn't the good kind.


This can't possibly work because it would mean that you cou ld measure 1&4 and get result that proves that they were not entangled and then entangle 2&3.

Of course it's possible that 2&3 entanglement trick doesn't always work and it never works if preceeding 1&4 measurment proved that they were unentangled. But this is some serious cheating. :)


I am not sure I understand you.


I hope that can make things clear: http://imgur.com/5mfB4m0 .




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